Quantcast
Viewing all articles
Browse latest Browse all 369

Answer by TKoL for How is this logic valid?

I don't really like the way that proof is presented, and I know this isn't what you asked, but if you want to prove ~(P -> Q) is mutually implicated with P ^ ~Q, we can just compare the truth tables.

P implies Q has a certain truth table

PQP -> Q
TTT
TFF
FTT
FFT

Which means ~ (P -> Q) ought to have the opposite truth table.

PQ~ (P -> Q)
TTF
TFT
FTF
FFF

The only row on that truth table is the row where P is true and Q is false.


Viewing all articles
Browse latest Browse all 369

Trending Articles



<script src="https://jsc.adskeeper.com/r/s/rssing.com.1596347.js" async> </script>